the purim revelation
The question you need to answer is:
What is a natural explanation of how a text written over 2000 years ago has anomalies in it, in exactly the relevant part of the text, which point to the exact year, that exactly the same thing happened, to exactly the same amount of people, for exactly the same crime, the only other time in recorded human history?
What is a natural explanation of how a text written over 2000 years ago has anomalies in it, in exactly the relevant part of the text, which point to the exact year, that exactly the same thing happened, to exactly the same amount of people, for exactly the same crime, the only other time in recorded human history?
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